05
May
2018
A question about : Two weeks in hand/arrears
I have recently finished with a company that pays on a two weeks in hand two weeks in arrears basis.
we were paid on the 15th of each month.
I started work on the 20th of a month, and finished on the 29th of a month many years later.
Should I have been paid for the last two weeks of my employment? Ie from the 15th (when paid) to the 29th when my contract ended? Or does this fall into the in hand/arrears bracket?
If you can provide any evidence or links it would be great
Thanks for any help
Best answers:
- No-one will know, because one of the things it will depend on is whether you got paid for a full month when you started work. Presumably, actually, when you started you were paid NOTHING in the first month, and then a full month plus [what you had earned from 20th to month end in month one] on the 15th of month 2.
If this is the case, then of course you should be paid to the 29th of your final month. Plus any accrued holiday pay (and minus any excess holiday you had taken in the holiday year before you left).
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