Is this ok?

A question about : Is this ok?

Hi all,

I'm going to send the following in my defence reply to the claim.

1 The Claimant's claim was issued on 8th September 2014.

2 The Defendant contends that as this is a claim in contract and an excess of 6 years have passed since any cause of action may have accrued, any alleged debt is therefore statute barred pursuant to section 5 of the Limitation Act 1980.

3. The Claimant's claim to be entitled to payment of Јxxxxx or any other sum, or relief of any kind is denied.

Do I need to send requests for original loan agreements and a CRP 13.14?

Best answers:

• Has there, at any time, been a continuous period of 6 years, during which you have neither acknowledged the debt in writing, nor made any payment toward it?
  Also, is this debt solely in your name?
• The cause of action business is a red herring, as far as SB is concerned.
  The SB clock runs from the date of last payment/acknowledgement.
• Hi. Is this thread asking for advice on a previous thread you posted here?
  https://forums.moneysavingexpert.com/...275&highlight=
  If it is, please keep to the same thread as it will give the background and enable you to get more accurate advice.
• Different question. Just bumping....sorry :/